Showing posts with label End times. Show all posts
Showing posts with label End times. Show all posts

Monday, 27 May 2024

Does Isaiah 65 Really Refer to a Millennial Kingdom?

The 20th chapter of the book of Revelation is the focal point of a lot of debate among Christians. This chapter refers to a period of a thousand years (Rev 20:2-7) that is usually called ‘the millennium’.

Interpreters of Rev 20 divide into groups that are commonly known as premillennialists, postmillennialists and amillennialists.

Premillennialists believe that the millennium is a period of time that will occur after Christ returns to earth. They often refer to this period as the ‘millennial kingdom’. According to them, the new earth, referred to in Isa 65:17, 2 Pet 3:13 and Rev 21:1, will not be created until after the millennial kingdom has ended.

Postmillennialists believe that the millennium will be a golden age of obedience to God on earth that will take place at some point before Christ returns. They believe that the new earth will be created almost immediately after Christ returns.

Most amillennialists believe that the millennium is symbolic of the whole era between the Day of Pentecost referred to in Acts 2 and the return of Christ. A small number of amillennialists believe instead that the millennium does not refer to any actual period of time on earth. Like postmillennialists, amillennialists also believe that the new earth will be created almost immediately after Christ returns.

I am firmly in the amillennial camp.

An argument used to support premillennialism

There are a huge number of biblical passages that are claimed as support for each position, and in this article I don’t intend to discuss this topic in any great depth, which would take tens of thousands of words at a bare minimum.

Instead, I want to limit my discussion to one argument that is commonly used by premillennialists as a proof text for their view. I am convinced that this argument doesn’t work, and I want to explain why.

The argument appeals to Isaiah 65:17-25, which reads as follows:

17 “For behold, I create new heavens
and a new earth,
and the former things shall not be remembered
or come into mind.
18 But be glad and rejoice forever
in that which I create;
for behold, I create Jerusalem to be a joy,
and her people to be a gladness.
19 I will rejoice in Jerusalem
and be glad in my people;
no more shall be heard in it the sound of weeping
and the cry of distress.
20 No more shall there be in it
an infant who lives but a few days,
or an old man who does not fill out his days,
for the young man shall die a hundred years old,
and the sinner a hundred years old shall be accursed.
21 They shall build houses and inhabit them;
they shall plant vineyards and eat their fruit.
22 They shall not build and another inhabit;
they shall not plant and another eat;
for like the days of a tree shall the days of my people be,
and my chosen shall long enjoy the work of their hands.

23 They shall not labor in vain
or bear children for calamity,
for they shall be the offspring of the blessed of the LORD,
and their descendants with them.
24 Before they call I will answer;
while they are yet speaking I will hear.
25 The wolf and the lamb shall graze together;
the lion shall eat straw like the ox,
and dust shall be the serpent’s food.
They shall not hurt or destroy
in all my holy mountain,”
says the LORD.’ (ESV)

The argument used by premillennialists goes along the following lines:

In this passage, Isaiah prophesies about a situation that doesn’t apply to the present state of affairs on earth and that can’t apply to the perfect state of affairs on the new earth.

For example, in v. 20 he says that a time is coming when people will not die in infancy and when those who die at 100 years old will be thought to have died young.

This can’t be referring to the world as we know it, because now and throughout known human history people have died in infancy. And it can’t be referring to the new earth, because there will be no human death there. Therefore, Isaiah must be prophesying about the millennial kingdom.

There are also other verses in this passage that premillennialists appeal to to make the same basic point, such as v. 23 and v. 25.

Responding to this argument

At first sight, this might look like a strong argument, but actually it isn’t, for a couple of reasons:

(1) We can see that this passage begins in v. 17 with a statement by God that he will create new heavens and a new earth.

It is not easy to take ‘a new earth’ loosely as a reference to the present earth upgraded in some way (as the earth would be in a supposed millennial kingdom), because of the reference to ‘new heavens’. If the new heavens really are new heavens, as they surely are, then it makes sense to think that ‘new earth’ really is referring to the new earth mentioned in 2 Pet 3:13 and Rev 21:1.

Importantly too, verses 18-25 seem most naturally to be a description of what will happen on the new earth. To say that v. 17 is referring to the new earth but that the focus changes immediately in v. 18 to what will go on in the millennial kingdom before the new earth has even been created looks awkward, to say the least.

(2) The book of Revelation actually contains some remarkable similarities to what we find in Isa 65:17-25.

In Rev 21:1 John says:

Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth, for the first heaven and the first earth had passed away, and the sea was no more.’ (ESV)

Then in Rev 21:2-22:5 John uses highly symbolic language to talk at length about what things will be like on the new earth.

There is one section of this passage that is very relevant for our topic in this article, and that is Rev 22:1-2, where we read:

1 Then the angel showed me the river of the water of life, bright as crystal, flowing from the throne of God and of the Lamb 2 through the middle of the street of the city; also, on either side of the river, the tree of life with its twelve kinds of fruit, yielding its fruit each month. The leaves of the tree were for the healing of the nations.’ (ESV)

Note the last sentence: ‘The leaves of the tree were for the healing of the nations.’ The ESV translates with the past tense ‘were’ because this is what John saw in the past in his vision, but the sentence refers to what will happen in the future after the new earth is created.

Christians are agreed that when we are on the new earth, there will be no suffering of any kind. Everything will be perfect. There will be no illnesses that need literal healing, and there will be no other problems that need any sort of metaphorical healing.

So what is Rev 22:2 talking about when it says that on the new earth the leaves of the tree will be for the healing of the nations?

The answer is that there is a form of artistic licence going on here that involves talking about the future earth in terms drawn from positive things that take place on our present earth. Here on our earth, using leaves medicinally is a positive thing, so the new earth is described as if this positive thing will also happen on it, even though actually that won’t be the case.

I don’t pretend to know why the Holy Spirit inspired the text in this way. But it can hardly be denied that this is what he has done. Rev 22:2 is clearly referring to healing that will happen on the new earth, yet there will certainly be nothing to heal at that time. So there has to be artistic licence in play.

Turning back now to Isa 65:17-25, I would suggest that the same sort of artistic licence is also being used in this passage. The whole passage is referring to life on the new earth, and in some of the verses, such as v. 20, the new earth is described in terms that are drawn from positive things on our present earth. On our earth, long life and the avoidance of infant death are viewed as positive things when they occur, so the new earth is described in these terms, even though the new earth will not literally be like that.

We have no choice but to say that this sort of artistic licence has led to what we read in Rev 22, so why can’t we say that the same has happened in Isa 65?

Taking passages too literally

When premillennialists cite Isa 65:17-25 as a proof text that there will be a millennial kingdom, they tend to simply assume that the prophecy in this passage is supposed to be interpreted literally.

It is certainly true that most of the Bible is supposed to be interpreted literally. But it is just as true that Scripture contains all sorts of figures of speech. Modern Western readers of the Bible often fail to realise this, and end up trying to force literal interpretations out of passages that were never intended to be read in that way.

Summing up

Despite the claims of many premillennialists that Isa 65:17-25 proves that it is God’s purpose for there to be a millennial kingdom at some point in the future, this passage doesn’t actually show this at all.

Rev 22:2 clearly uses artistic licence to describe the future, new earth in terms drawn from our present earth. So it is very easy to say that the same sort of artistic licence is in operation in Isa 65:17-25 too. And if we accept that Isa 65:18-25 is talking about the new earth, this allows us to keep a continuity of theme between v. 17, which explicitly mentions the new earth, and verses 18-25.

 

See also:

Beware of Taking Biblical End-Times Prophecies Too Literally

The Problems with Claiming to Interpret the Bible Literally

Beware of Taking Genesis 1-3 Too Literally

Is It God’s Will for There to Be Another Jerusalem Temple?

Thursday, 16 May 2024

Could Jesus Return at Any Moment?

The Bible teaches that the Lord Jesus Christ will return to earth, as many passages make clear. For example, in Acts 1:11 we read that on the day Jesus ascended to heaven, some angels told the 11 remaining apostles:

Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking into heaven? This Jesus, who was taken up from you into heaven, will come in the same way as you saw him go into heaven.’ (ESV)

So Jesus will come back. But when will this take place? Could he return at any moment, or are there things that still have to happen first?

Things still have to happen before Jesus returns

A good place to start on this topic is in the second chapter of Paul’s second letter to the Thessalonians. It is worth setting out the first three verses of the chapter in full:

1 Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, 2 not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. 3 Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction . . .’ (ESV)

Verse 1 is clear that Paul is talking about the return of Jesus, and in v. 3 Paul says that his return will not happen until ‘the rebellion’ occurs and ‘the man of lawlessness is revealed’.

Importantly, there is no good reason for thinking that these things have happened yet. The rebellion, which must be some sort of specific rebellion against God, has apparently not yet taken place. And the man of lawlessness, sometimes referred to as ‘the antichrist’, is apparently a literal man who has still to appear on the scene and do his evil thing. (These events are spelled out in a bit more detail in the following verses.)

In seeking to answer the question we are asking in this article, therefore, this means that we can rule out the solution which says that Jesus could return at any moment and that things are as simple as that. The vast majority of Bible-believing Christians agree with this conclusion.

Passages which might seem to suggest that Jesus could return at any moment

What makes this issue a bit more complicated is that there are biblical passages which seem at first sight to suggest that Jesus could return at any moment.

Matthew 24:37-44 provides a good example of this, and, again, it is worth setting out the passage in full:

37 As the days of Noah were, so the coming of the Son of Man will be. 38 For in those days before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day Noah boarded the ark. 39 They didn’t know until the flood came and swept them all away. This is the way the coming of the Son of Man will be. 40 Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. 41 Two women will be grinding grain with a hand mill; one will be taken and one left. 42 Therefore be alert, since you don’t know what day your Lord is coming. 43 But know this: If the homeowner had known what time the thief was coming, he would have stayed alert and not let his house be broken into. 44 This is why you are also to be ready, because the Son of Man is coming at an hour you do not expect.’ (CSB)

This passage tells us repeatedly that Jesus will return. And in verses 42 and 44 the disciples are told that they need to be alert and ready for this.

At first sight, the instructions here to be alert and ready for Jesus’ return seem to suggest that he could return at any moment. So at first glance, this seems to contradict passages like 2 Thess 2:1-3 that we looked at above.

We have a bit of work to do, then, figuring out what is going on with all this, because obviously the Bible isn’t going to contradict itself on this issue.

The dispensationalist solution

Christians who accept what is known as dispensational theology have come up with a novel solution to this conundrum, which is to say that Jesus will return twice – once to the air above the earth and then 7 years later to the earth itself. They say that Jesus could return at any moment to the air above the earth, at which time the church will be caught up to meet him in the air (1 Thess 4:14-17), and then 7 years later he will return again and actually set foot on the earth.

In dispensational thinking, passages like Matt 24:37-44 and 1 Thess 4:14-17 are referring to Jesus’ first return, to the air above the earth, and passages like 2 Thess 2:1-3 are referring to his second return, when he sets foot on the earth.

Although this is a popular view today, no or almost no Christians believed this before the 1830s. Like the vast majority of believers down through the centuries, I am convinced that Jesus will return only once. Together with a large majority of Christians, I am sure that on the day Jesus returns, believers will be caught up to meet him in the air and then on the same day he and we will set foot on the earth.

Thinking more carefully about the passages which seem to suggest that Jesus could return at any moment

In this article I am not planning to give a long defence of the view that Jesus will return once. Rather, I want to focus on what is probably the main argument used by dispensationalists to support their idea that Jesus will return twice, which is the existence of passages that seem to teach that he could return at any moment.

Let’s think about this issue more carefully, using Matt 24:37-44 that I quoted above. And in this section let’s look at things from the point of view of dispensationalist theology, with its idea that Jesus will return twice, once to the air above the earth and then 7 years later to the earth proper.

What I want to show is that, even according to dispensational ideas, it is not possible to say that Jesus could have returned at any moment to the air above the earth until decades after he first spoke the words in this passage.

The teaching in this passage is given to Jesus’ disciples (Matt 24:3), which certainly includes the 12 apostles. As I have noted, Jesus tells his disciples to be alert for his coming (v. 42) and ready for his coming (v. 44).

At first sight, these commands look as if they were applicable from the moment Jesus spoke them. See how he says ‘be alert’ for the Lord’s coming, not ‘a time will come in the future when you will need to be alert’ for the Lord’s coming. And note how he says ‘you are also to be ready’ for Jesus’ return, not ‘a time will come in the future when you will need to be ready’ for his return.

However, these commands cannot possibly have been applicable from the time Jesus spoke these words. His return was clearly not possible before he had even left! He needed to complete his earthly teaching ministry, die, rise from the dead and ascend to heaven first. So although at first glance Jesus seems in these verses to be referring to something that could have happened at any moment from the time he spoke these words, this cannot have been the case, as even dispensationalists have to agree.

But what about when Jesus had ascended to heaven? Could Jesus have returned to the air above the earth at any moment after that point?

No! Another 10 days were needed until the Holy Spirit was given on the Day of Pentecost (Acts 2:1-4), as even dispensationalists have to agree.

OK, but once the Spirit had been given on the Day of Pentecost, surely the point was reached when Jesus could return at any moment to the air above the earth, wasn’t it?

Again, no! In John 21:18-19 Jesus prophesies that Peter will grow old and be martyred, and there are very good reasons for believing that this happened in the 60s of the first century. So even after the giving of the Spirit at Pentecost, which took place at some time between 30 AD and 33 AD, at least another three decades or so were needed before it would be possible for Jesus to return at any moment to the air above the earth.

And dispensationalists, if they are consistent with what else they believe, have to agree with this. Dispensationalists claim that when Jesus returns for the first time, to the air above the earth, the Christians on earth at that time will be caught up to meet him and then taken away to heaven. Before he died, Peter was obviously a Christian on earth. So, if Jesus had returned while Peter was still on earth, he would have been caught up to heaven and the prophecy of his martyrdom would never have been fulfilled. Therefore, even according to dispensational ideas, the Christians on earth couldn’t have been caught up to meet Jesus in the air until Jesus’ prophecy of Peter’s martyr death had been fulfilled sometime in the 60s of the first century.

My point is that, although in Matt 24:37-44, and other similar passages, Jesus seems at first sight to be saying that his return could happen at any moment, that wasn’t actually the case. In reality, there needed to be a delay of no less than some decades before he could return even to the air above the earth, as even dispensationalists have to agree.

Of course, I don’t agree with dispensationalists that there will be two returns of Jesus, first to the air above the earth and then 7 years later to the earth itself. But my point is that even if we were to think that Jesus will return twice, his first return wouldn’t have been possible until decades after Jesus spoke the words of Matt 24:37-44 and other similar prophecies.

A crucial point to consider

So there were at least some decades after Jesus spoke the prophecy in Matt 24:37-44 (and similar passages) before the return he was referring to in this passage could have happened. But crucially, why do we have to say that the point has been reached even today when it could happen at any moment? I would suggest that it hasn’t. There are still things that need to happen before the return of Jesus referred to in this passage can happen, including the rebellion and revelation of the man of lawlessness that we read about in 2 Thess 2.

Many dispensationalists criticise other Christians for supposedly not taking seriously enough the passages which seem to teach that Jesus could return at any moment. But what they often fail to recognise is that they themselves have to allow for a delay of some decades between the giving of the prophecies and their fulfillment. And if there has to be a delay of decades, then why could the delay not be as long as centuries, even up to the present day?

To put it another way, the approach of dispensationalists to the passages which seem at first sight to suggest that Jesus could return at any moment is far too simplistic. They often look at these passages and just assume that these passages must be saying that today Jesus could return at any moment. But this is an unwarranted assumption. And if there is no good reason for thinking that today Jesus could return at any moment, this means there is no good reason for thinking that Jesus will return twice.

What is the point of these passages?

As we have seen, passages in the New Testament which seem at first sight to suggest that Jesus could return at any moment actually need to be qualified to some extent.

But this raises a question. What should we make of these passages? If they don’t actually teach that Jesus could return at any moment, what do they teach and what is their purpose?

There are a few points to make here:

(1) Even though at the present time there are still things that need to happen before Jesus returns, it is quite possible that end-times events could unfold very rapidly. So even though he couldn’t return today, he could return very soon. Exhortations to be watchful for his return are therefore still highly relevant.

(2) I think exhortations to be watchful for Jesus’ return actually encourage people to get ready for their deaths.

Each human being could die at any moment, and in terms of what the end result will be, death has the same outcome as Jesus’ return. When he returns, those on earth who are saved will then spend eternity with him and those who are unsaved will be expelled from his presence. Likewise, when people die, the saved will spend eternity with him and the unsaved will be expelled from his presence.

Exhortations to get ready for Jesus’ return, and therefore to be ready to meet him, remind us that we will also need to be ready to meet him if we die. These exhortations therefore encourage people to think about the need to be ready to meet Jesus, whether or not we do this by dying or by being on earth when he returns.

(3) A time will obviously be reached at some point in the future when all conditions for Jesus’ return have been met and he really could appear at any moment. So these passages will take on a special relevance at that time.

 

See also:

Is It God’s Will for There to Be Another Jerusalem Temple? 

Beware of Interpreting Bible Prophecies Too Literally 

The Problems with Claiming to Interpret the Bible Literally 


The Importance of Being Cautious in End-Times Matters

Wednesday, 12 October 2016

Should Christians Evangelise Non-Christian Jews?

In 2015 the Roman Catholic pope made a proclamation telling Catholics not to actively seek to evangelise non-Christian Jews. Many Jews are becoming increasingly upset by the growing numbers of Jews who are turning to Christ, and this has led to hostility towards Christians. Apparently in an effort to reduce this hostility, the pope told Catholics not to evangelise Jews. And we can be sure that he would like all Christians to avoid doing this.

So did the pope get this right? Should Christians today avoid proclaiming the gospel to non-Christian Jews?

In a word, no. Non-Christian Jews today need to hear the good news of salvation by faith in Jesus Christ as much as anyone else. The fact that the pope could even say such a thing is a strong indicator – one among many – that he is in no way fit to be a Christian leader. What he said on this issue sharply contradicts the teaching of the New Testament.

Leaving aside the exceptional cases of those who die at a very young age or who suffer from severe mental disability, the NT knows nothing of people living in the Christian era who are saved from their sins without faith in Christ. Importantly too, the NT is full of clear indications that Jews need to believe in Jesus to be saved. Jews don’t cease to be Jews when they believe in Jesus and become Christians. But they do need to believe in Him if they are to be saved from sin and hell.

Any attempt to deal with all the relevant NT material on this topic would make this article far too long. In what follows I will therefore concentrate on two parts of the NT which show that only through faith in Christ will Jews receive salvation. These are the Gospel of John and Paul’s letter to the Romans.

THE GOSPEL OF JOHN

Let’s begin, then, with John’s Gospel. There are so many passages that are relevant for our purposes that I will cite just a few of them:

John 1:11-12

In John 1:11-12 John tells us: 
11 He [Jesus] came to what was His own, but His own did not accept Him. 12 But as many as did accept Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, that is, to those who believed in His name.” 
In v. 11 “what was His own” refers to the Jewish people as a whole, who, generally speaking, didn’t accept Jesus as Messiah. Then v. 12 qualifies v. 11 by focusing on the minority of Jews who did accept Him (as well as Gentiles who accepted Him).

The passage implies that Jews who didn’t accept Jesus and believe in His name were not given the right to become God’s children, which surely means that they were not granted salvation.  

John 3:18

In John 3:18 John writes: 
“He who believes in Him [Jesus] is not judged. But he who does not believe has already been judged, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God.” 
This is clear that failing to believe in Jesus involves judgment, and this judgment surely involves missing out on salvation.

John 8:24

In John 8:24 Jesus, speaking to Jews, says: 
“For unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins.” 
This verse strongly implies that Jews who don’t believe in Christ will not be saved.

John 12:46

In John 12:46 Jesus teaches: 
“I have come as light into the world, so that everyone who believes in Me will not remain in darkness.” 
This implies that those who don’t believe in Jesus will remain in darkness, which surely means that they will not be saved from their sins.

John 14:6

In John 14:6 Jesus states: 
“I am the way, the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.” 
If someone doesn’t come to the Father, that implies that they are not in relationship with the Father, which in turn implies that they will not be saved.

John 15:6

In John 15:6 Jesus says: 
“If anyone does not abide in Me, he is thrown out like a branch and dries up, and they gather them and throw them into the fire and they are burned.” 
Being burned here is a reference to judgment in hell. So this verse implies that abiding in Christ by faith in Him is necessary for salvation.

John 20:31

In John 20:31 we are told that John’s Gospel was written for this reason: 
“. . . so that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that, believing, you may have life in His name.” 
The first thing to note here is that this verse clearly implies that without believing that Jesus is the Messiah, people will not have life.

Secondly, other passages in John’s Gospel make it clear that those without life will not be saved from their sins.

For example, in John 3:36 we read: 
“He who believes in the Son has eternal life. But he who does not obey the Son will not see life, but the anger of God remains on him.” 
Note here how a person who doesn’t have life also has God’s anger remaining on them. This certainly implies that they are not saved from their sins.

So a person is not saved without life, and a person doesn’t have life without believing in Christ.

Summing up

In addition to the passages I have cited, others in John’s Gospel also point in the same direction. If we take what this Gospel teaches seriously, we are compelled to conclude that Jews who don’t believe in Jesus will not be saved from sin and hell.

Either the pope’s ability to interpret what John teaches is extremely poor or he thinks that he knows better. Either way, Christians today should reject his anti-biblical teaching and follow holy Scripture.

ROMANS

Let’s turn now to what the apostle Paul has to say on this subject in his letter to the Romans. Again, I will quote only some of the relevant passages:

Romans 1:16
 In Romans 1:16 Paul tells the Christians in Rome:

“For I am not ashamed of the good news, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.” 
This quite strongly suggests that we can expect Jews and Greeks who don’t believe in Christ not to be granted salvation.

Romans 3:9-23

In Romans 3:9, referring back to what he has written in the first two chapters of his letter, Paul states: 
“. . . we have already made the charge that Jews and Greeks are all under sin.” 
“Greeks” here is a way of referring to Gentiles generally.

Then in 3:10-18 Paul lists some Old Testament texts to support this claim that every human being is a sinner.

And then in 3:21-23 he begins to outline the solution to the problem of sin: 
21 But now, apart from the Law, the uprightness of God has been manifested, something that is testified to by the Law and the prophets, 22 the uprightness of God that is by faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe. For there is no distinction, 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God . . .” 
I have already noted how in v. 9 Paul says that both Jews and Gentiles are under sin. Therefore, when he refers in v. 22 to “the uprightness of God that is by faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe” and follows this by “for there is no distinction,” he is surely implying that there is no distinction between Jews and Gentiles in the way that they receive God’s uprightness. In other words, he is implying that both Jews and Gentiles need faith in Christ for salvation.

Romans 9-11

In Romans 9-11 Paul discusses at length how the rejection of Jesus by the majority of Jews in his day fits with the purposes of God.

In Romans 9:27 he says: 
“Isaiah cries out concerning Israel, ‘Although the number of the sons of Israel is like the sand of the sea, it is the remnant that will be saved.’” 
In the context, Paul clearly understands this remnant to be the minority of Jews who believe in Jesus. In saying that the remnant will be saved, he is strongly implying that those Jews who are not part of the remnant will not be saved.

In Romans 10:1 Paul states: 
“Brothers, my heart’s desire and prayer to God for them [the Jewish people] is for their salvation.” 
Because the context of this verse is Jewish failure to believe in Jesus, by using these words Paul is clearly implying that Jews who don’t believe in Him are unsaved.

In Romans 10:9, still speaking in the context of Jewish rejection of Jesus, Paul writes: 
“. . . if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved.” 
Again, this implies that Jews who don’t believe in Jesus will not be saved.

In Romans 11:20-22 Paul warns his readers: 
20 . . . they [unbelieving Jews] were broken off because of their unbelief, but you stand by faith. Do not be arrogant but fear, 21 for if God did not spare the natural branches, He will not spare you either. 22 See, then, the kindness and severity of God – to those who fell, severity, but to you, God’s kindness, if you continue in that kindness.” 
Jews who don’t believe in Christ are portrayed in this passage as having been broken off from the olive tree that represents the group of people who experience salvation.

Summing up

Other passages in Romans could be added to the list I have given. But the ones I have quoted make it clear that Jews need faith in Christ to be saved from sin and hell.

Again, the pope either doesn’t know what Romans has to say on this subject or he thinks that he knows better.

Nor is it just Romans and the Gospel of John which teach this. Numerous passages in other parts of the NT too, including large parts of Galatians, teach the same: Jews need faith in Jesus Christ to be saved.

SALVATION OF JEWS BEFORE THE TIME OF CHRIST

Before Jesus came to earth, Jewish people could be saved from their sins with a general faith in the God of Israel. Some Jews had that faith and were saved. Others didn’t have that faith and were not saved. Being Jewish in itself did not save anyone. Saving faith did.

In Romans 4:1-25 Paul explains how Abraham was saved by his faith. Abraham was not able to have faith in Jesus, because the existence and role of Jesus had not yet been revealed. But he nevertheless had a faith in God that pleased Him. And we can be sure that he would have believed in Jesus if he had been able.

A MORE SPECIFIC FOCUS FOR FAITH IS NOW NEEDED

Now that Jesus has come, in essence nothing has changed. Jews are still saved from their sins by faith. But this faith now needs to have a more specific focus. It needs to be faith in Christ.

Jesus’ coming to earth is the heart and soul of God’s dealings with the human race. Nothing else remotely compares to what God accomplished in and through Him, the God-Man. If a Jew today fails to believe in Christ, then he or she has utterly failed to recognise what God has done in our world. Today if a Jew (or Gentile) rejects Jesus as Messiah and Son of God, that person simply cannot have genuine, Abrahamic, saving faith.

Like all Gentiles, Jewish people today are sinners who desperately need to be saved from the impending punishment after death that their sins deserve. And in order to be saved, they need to believe in the Messiah, Jesus, who, as it happens, was sent first of all to the Jewish people.

JEWS TURNING TO CHRIST

Despite the efforts of the pope and others to hinder evangelism to Jews, it seems to be the case that at the present time Jews are turning to Christ in larger numbers than they ever have done. The number of Jewish Christians is growing noticeably not only in places like the United States but also in the land of Israel itself.

In Romans 11:26 Paul prophesies that “all Israel will be saved.” It seems highly likely that he is referring here to ethnic Israel, and that he is looking forward to a time when Jews will turn to Jesus en masse.

We should always be very cautious about claiming that present-day events are the fulfilment of biblical prophecy. Nevertheless, I think it is not impossible that in our day we are beginning to see the fulfilment of this prophecy.


See also:




The Problems with Claiming to Interpret the Bible Literally

There are many Christians who claim that their method of interpreting the Bible is to take it literally.  They don’t qualify this in any way.  They just say that they interpret the Bible literally.

Those who make this claim usually mean well.  They want to stand by what Scripture is teaching.  And they are rightly opposed to unwarranted spiritualising interpretations that deny biblical truth.

However, there are two big problems with claiming to interpret the Bible literally without qualifying this.

A strange definition of ‘literal’

The first problem is that Christians who say they interpret Scripture literally are using the words ‘literal’ and ‘literally’ in a very strange way.

Like all believers, these Christians accept that the Bible contains many figures of speech, including numerous examples of metaphor.  A metaphor is a rhetorical figure of speech in which something is said to be a thing that in reality it is not.

For example, in Psalm 18:2 David says: 
‘The LORD is my rock and my fortress and my deliverer, my God, my rock, in whom I take refuge, my shield and the horn of my salvation, my high tower.’ 
This verse is full of metaphors.  David metaphorically describes God as a rock, a fortress, a shield, a horn and a high tower.

Every Christian would agree that these are metaphors.  No believer would claim, for example, that David thought the LORD was actually made out of rock, whether limestone, granite or whatever.  Instead, every Christian would accept that this is a metaphor.

Christians who say that they take a literal interpretation of Scripture are including metaphors like those in Psalm 18:2 under the heading of what they mean by ‘literal’.  However, for English speakers generally, literal means that the thing in question really is what it is said to be, and that there is no figure of speech involved.  In other words, for the vast majority of English speakers, to use a metaphor is precisely not to speak literally, and to speak literally is precisely not to use a metaphor or other figure of speech. 

For Christians to use the words ‘literal’ and ‘literally’ in a very different way from how everyone else uses them is just going to lead to confusion.  It can also help make the Christian faith seem inaccessible to non-Christians.  We should therefore use these words in the same way that everyone else does. 

Those Christians who say that they take a literal interpretation of the Bible really mean that they take a plain-sense interpretation.  They mean that they don’t interpret passages symbolically if there is a more straightforward way of taking the words.  This plain sense will usually be literal (in the proper sense of ‘literal’), but at other times it will be metaphorical or will involve another figure of speech.

It would be a step in the right direction if everyone who says that they take a literal interpretation of Scripture said instead that they take a plain-sense interpretation of Scripture.

No one always interprets Scripture in the plain sense

A second problem with Christians saying that they interpret the Bible literally (by which they mean that they interpret it in the plain sense, as I have just explained) is that no Christian does in fact consistently take a plain-sense interpretation of Scripture.  There are biblical prophecies which are so obviously not supposed to be interpreted in the plain sense, that no one who knows of them would claim that they should be interpreted in the plain sense.

A good example of this can be found in John 2:19-21, where Jesus gives a prophecy while in the temple courts in Jerusalem: 
19 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” 
20 The Jews then said, “It took forty-six years to build this temple, and are you going to raise it up in three days?” 
21 But He was speaking about the temple of His body.’ 
Note here that the Jews listening to Jesus take His prophecy in the plain sense.  They pour scorn on His supposed claim to be able to build such a magnificent structure as the temple in three days.  As v. 21 makes clear, however, Jesus’ prophecy was actually symbolic and had to do with His body.  By interpreting the prophecy in the plain sense, His hearers had misunderstood it.

It is true that Jesus’ words may have some kind of secondary level of meaning that refers to the actual temple, and scholars debate this.  Nevertheless, even if there is a secondary level to the saying, the primary level of meaning is still highly symbolic.  Furthermore, any secondary reference to the temple in the plain sense certainly does not include the plain sense of raising up in three days.

No Christian, therefore, interprets Jesus’ words in John 2:19 in the plain sense of the words.

Another example of a prophecy that cannot be interpreted in the plain sense is found in Matthew’s Gospel, in Matthew 12:40, where Jesus states: 
‘For just as Jonah was in the sea monster’s stomach for three days and three nights, so the Son of Man will be in the heart of the earth for three days and three nights.’ 
Being in the heart of the earth is a reference to the time between Jesus’ death and resurrection.  And the plain sense of three days and three nights is approximately 72 hours.  Yet this same Gospel portrays the time between Jesus’ death and resurrection as approximately 36 hours (Matthew 27:46-28:7)!

There is a remarkable lack of precision in Jesus’ words here that seems strange to modern Westerners but which would have been at home in first century Jewish culture. 

Jesus’ reference to being in the earth for three days and three nights in Matthew 12:40 is not symbolic in the way that His prophecy in John 2:19 is.  Nevertheless, it is clearly not supposed to be understood in the plain sense.

Summing up

For two reasons, then, those who say that they take a literal interpretation of the Bible are making a mistake.  When they say ‘literal’, they really mean ‘in the plain sense’.  And they have failed to recognise that no Christian does in fact consistently take a plain-sense interpretation of biblical prophecies.

End-times prophecies

There are many Christians who would readily accept the points I have made so far, but who nevertheless always insist that biblical end-times prophecies should be interpreted in the plain sense.  They don’t stop to consider if a more symbolic interpretation of an end-times prophecy might be the correct one.

Those who do this are motivated in part by their opposition to the wrongful spiritualising of biblical prophecies found in some heretical circles. 

For example, there are people who spiritualise the prophecies of Jesus’ return by saying that these prophecies really just symbolise His victory over evil.  They say that we should therefore not expect Him to visibly return to earth at some point in the future.

It is right to vigorously oppose illegitimate spiritualising interpretations like these.  However, it is a big over-reaction to insist, without further consideration, that all end-times prophecies must be interpreted in the plain sense.  This is a classic case of opposing one extreme by going to the other extreme.

When Scripture itself interprets its own prophecies, the interpretations range from the strictly literal to the highly symbolic.  As far as end-times prophecies are concerned, therefore, we would most probably expect the same to be true.  This means that unless it is immediately obvious that we should interpret a given prophecy in the plain sense, we should be cautious and open to either a plain-sense or non-plain-sense fulfilment.  Any other approach fails to do justice to what we find in the Bible itself.


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Tuesday, 11 October 2016

Is the Church Spiritual Israel?

There are millions of Christians today, especially in the United States, who identify with the movement known as dispensationalism.  This movement is actually far from being uniform, and dispensationalists hold quite a wide range of views on things. 

For our purposes in this article, I will divide dispensationalism into 2 categories, mainstream dispensationalism and progressive dispensationalism.  This is actually a simplification, because there are some in-between views that cannot easily be classified within either of these categories, and because within the categories there are sub-categories too.  Nevertheless, dividing dispensationalism into these two categories will be appropriate for this article.

A few points about dispensationalism

Mainstream dispensationalism arose in the 19th century and   includes some views on important issues that seem never to have been held by any Christians before that time.  Progressive dispensationalism arose in the 1980s and is much more in line with traditional evangelical beliefs than mainstream dispensationalism is.

Dispensationalism, both mainstream and progressive, is premillennialist.  This refers to the view that Jesus will return to earth immediately before (hence the ‘pre-’) He sets up a kingdom on this earth that will last for a thousand years. 

In the 2nd century AD premillennialism seems to have been a common view among Christians, although in the following centuries it became increasingly rare.  The theology of premillennialists of these early centuries of the church is known as historic premillennialism.  Historic premillennialism has a lot in common with progressive dispensationalism, but it differs significantly from mainstream dispensationalism. 

As I have noted, mainstream dispensationalists believe some things that never seem to have been believed by any Christians before the 19th century.

One of these is that Jesus will return to earth twice, once to the air above the earth when the church is raptured up, and then again a few years later when He comes down onto the earth itself.

I have to say that I am surprised so many Christians today believe this.  It can be read out of a few biblical passages if it is first read into them, but it is not what the Bible teaches.  And until the 19th century all Christians seem to have believed what the majority believe today, which is that Jesus will return once to earth, and that the rapture will take place on that occasion.

It is not my intention in this article to give a biblical argument for the traditional view of the rapture.  Instead, my focus will be on another unbiblical idea of mainstream dispensationalism, one that concerns the church and ethnic Israel

When I refer to ‘ethnic Israel’ in this article I will be making another simplification.  Throughout history it has been possible for people of any ethnic group to become physical Jews, so ‘ethnic Israel’ is not technically accurate as a term.  However, for want of a better label, I will use this one. 

The mistake of mainstream dispensationalism that I am interested in here is the idea that God has distinct purposes for the church and for ethnic Israel.  This is another belief that seems not to have been held by anyone before the 19th century. 

This idea appears to have arisen as a result of the highly literalistic reading of Scripture that is found in mainstream dispensationalism.  One characteristic of mainstream dispensationalists is that they insist on reading every passage of the Bible as literally as conceivably possible.

This is something else I find strange.  I think this approach probably came about as an overreaction to illegitimate spiritualising by liberal theologians in the 19th century.  I also think that dispensationalists have allowed themselves to be influenced by modern Western ways of thinking and writing about things.  In the West we tend to speak and think about things more straightforwardly and literally than ancient Jews did, and I think this has distorted the biblical interpretation of dispensationalists.

As it happens, the New Testament is full of spiritualising, non-literal interpretations of the Old Testament.  Things that the NT gives a spiritualising interpretation to include the children of Abraham (Rom 4:16; Gal 3:7, 29), the land promised to Abraham (Rom 4:13), the temple (e.g., John 2:19-22; 1 Cor 3:16; 6:19; 2 Cor 6:16), Jerusalem (Heb 12:22; Rev 21:10-27), the dwelling of David (Acts 15:16) and Elijah (Matt 11:14; 17:11-13; Mark 9:11-13).  The main argument of the book of Hebrews also involves a spiritualising interpretation of the OT sacrificial system.

The church as spiritual Israel

In this article I want to concentrate my attention on one other OT concept that is given a spiritual interpretation in the NT, i.e., Israel.

Mainstream dispensationalists can often be heard saying things like, ‘In the Bible ‘Israel’ always means ethnic Israel.’  They claim that the NT authors never understand Israel in a spiritual, non-literal sense, and that it is a mistake to refer to the church as spiritual Israel.

This claim is completely wrong.  In fact, the NT clearly portrays the church as a spiritual Israel.

Before we turn to some of the evidence for this, it is worth me saying a few words about explicit and implicit evidence.  Importantly, we must beware of falling into what we could call ‘the word – concept fallacy’.  This is the mistake of thinking that if a word that is commonly used to refer to a concept is not present, then that concept itself cannot be present.

It should be obvious that this is a mistake.  For example, suppose I come into a house and say to someone there, ‘I’ve been outside for one minute and I’m soaked! If you go out, make sure you take an umbrella.’

Here I have not been explicit that it is raining, since I have not used the words ‘rain’ or ‘raining’.  But I have clearly implied that it is raining nevertheless.

Similarly, in the Bible John’s Gospel never uses Greek words that mean ‘faith’ or ‘repentance’, but these concepts are strongly implied in that book.  And although Jesus can never be found in the Gospels using any word that means ‘grace’, the grace in His message is implied all the same.

When considering a spiritual interpretation of Israel, then, it is the concept of spiritual Israel that is key, not whether the word ‘Israel’ itself is used, although that will also come into the following discussion.

Let’s turn now to look at what the NT has to say about this topic.  There is so much evidence that the NT portrays the church as spiritual Israel that I will limit my comments to a few passages.  The following texts are especially relevant:

Romans 2:25-29

In this passage Paul tells the believers in Rome: 
‘25 For circumcision is of benefit if you practise the Law.  But if you break the Law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision.  26 So if an uncircumcised person keeps the regulations of the Law, won’t his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision?  27 And the person who is naturally uncircumcised but keeps the Law will judge you who have the written code and circumcision but break the Law.  28 For a person is not a Jew who is one outwardly, nor is circumcision that which is performed outwardly in the flesh, 29 but a person is a Jew who is one inwardly, and circumcision is of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code . . .’
 In Paul’s day one key feature of ethnic Jewish males was that they were circumcised, and in v. 25 Paul is clearly implying that if an ethnic Jew breaks the Law of Moses, at a deeper level that person is in effect a non-Jew.  And then in v. 26 he just as clearly implies that if an ethnic Gentile (‘an uncircumcised person’) keeps the Law of Moses, at a deeper level that person is in effect a Jew.

In vv. 28-29 Paul is even clearer.  He plainly teaches that real Jewishness has to do with what is going on inside a person.  It is those who are Jews inwardly who are real Jews.  Given the reference to uncircumcision being regarded as circumcision in v. 26, Paul is obviously including ethnic Gentiles among those who he says are real Jews by being Jews inwardly. 

It is true that in the Greek Paul doesn’t explicitly use an adjective like ‘real’ or ‘true’ to refer to those who are Jews inwardly, but an adjective with this sort of meaning has to be understood.  The passage would make no sense otherwise.

When Paul refers to ‘circumcision . . . of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code’ in v. 29, he is obviously thinking of Christians.  So there is no doubt that he is applying this concept of being a real Jew to all Christians.

Israel, of course, is the sum of all Jews.  So this passage implies that the church is real Israel or true Israel.  That, of course, does not literally mean that ethnic Israel is not real or true in any sense.  It just means that the church can be understood as Israel in a much deeper, more real and more profound sense than ethnic Israel can.

Although Paul implies a description such as ‘real’ or ‘true’ to define the Jewishness of those who are Jews inwardly, it would be appropriate to say that these inward Jews are spiritual Jews.  Therefore, this is a passage which teaches that the church is spiritual Israel.

Romans 9:6

In this verse, as Paul is about to begin discussing how the rejection of Jesus by most of the Jews of his day fits with the purposes of God, he states: 
‘For not all who are descended from Israel are Israel.’
 Paul clearly has 2 groups of people in mind in this sentence: (a) the group that comprises the whole of ethnic Israel; and (b) the group that comprises a different sort of Israel.  Because the whole of ethnic Israel can reasonably be referred to as literal Israel, we can refer to (b) as a kind of spiritual Israel.

Paul must mean that not everyone who belongs to ethnic Israel belongs to the spiritual Israel that he has in mind.

It is true that nothing in the immediate context of v. 6 directly connects this spiritual Israel specifically to the church.

Nevertheless, firstly, even if, for the sake of argument, we were to conclude that the spiritual Israel here is something other than the church, it would still be the case that this verse uses the term ‘Israel’ in a spiritual sense.  And this is something that mainstream dispensationalists so often say the Bible never does.

And secondly, we have already seen that earlier in the same letter, in Romans 2:25-29, Paul expresses the concept of the church being spiritual Israel.  It would then be surprising if the spiritual Israel in 9:6 was something different from that.  This interpretation also fits well with the rest of chs. 9-11 and Philippians 3:2-3 that we are about to look at, as well as much more in Paul’s letters.  Although in 9:6 Paul is thinking only about ethnic Jews who are part of the spiritual Israel, it seems likely that the spiritual Israel he has in mind is the church.

Philippians 3:2-3

In this passage Paul says to the church in Philippi: 
‘2 Watch out for the dogs; watch out for those who do evil; watch out for the mutilation [Greek: katatome].  3 For it is we who are the circumcision [Greek: peritome], who worship by the Spirit of God and boast in Christ Jesus and do not trust in the flesh.’
 The first thing to note here is that ‘the circumcision’ in v. 3 refers to Christians.  And it must refer to all Christians, i.e., the whole church, since it is all Christians, whether ethnic Jews or Gentiles, who worship by the Spirit, boast in Christ and do not trust in the flesh.

Furthermore, the congregation in Philippi itself very probably had a majority of Gentile believers among its number at the time Paul wrote.  The fact that Philippi was a Roman colony, the fact that Paul was apostle to the Gentiles, and the account in Acts 16:12-40 of the first Christians in Philippi suggest that a large proportion of the Philippian congregation was Gentile.  And it is very implausible to think that it was composed entirely of Jewish Christians when Paul wrote his letter. 

Not only, then, does ‘the circumcision’ in Philippians 3:3 have to refer to the whole church comprising all Jewish and Gentile Christians.  But even if we think about the Philippians who were in the forefront of Paul’s mind as he wrote, ‘the circumcision’ must have been referring, in part, to some Gentile Christians in Philippi.

Importantly, in the first century ‘the circumcision’ was an alternative way of referring to Jews and ethnic Israel

In Galatians 2:9, for example, Paul himself uses the same Greek word that he uses in Philippians 3:3, peritome, to refer to ethnic Israel: 
‘. . . so that we might go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcision [peritome].’
 Other passages that use peritome to refer to ethnic Israel include Romans 3:30; 4:9; 15:8; Galatians 2:7-8; Ephesians 2:11; and Colossians 3:11.

Therefore, in Philippians 3:3 Paul clearly expresses the concept of the church being Israel, even though the word ‘Israel’ isn’t used.  And ‘spiritual Israel’ is a good way of describing what Paul has in mind. 

Furthermore, we need to take note of the wordplay in this passage.  Paul tells his readers, ‘watch out for the katatome.  For we are the peritome’.  The similarities in spelling and meaning between these Greek words and the presence of the connecting word ‘For’ surely shows that Paul is making a play on words here.

Katatome has to do with cutting in some way, and in the context the cutting must have a negative connotation.  For the wordplay to make sense, Paul must be referring to Jews or professing Jewish Christians who were insisting that Gentile Christians be circumcised.  And he seems to be implying too that the circumcision these people thought so highly of was actually bringing spiritual cutting that leads to ruin.  The ‘we’ in v. 3 would then be emphatic, and we could paraphrase in this way: 
‘Watch out for those who say that circumcision is necessary for salvation.  Those who teach this are not circumcising in what matters but are spiritually cutting to pieces themselves and those who accept their teaching.  It is not they but we Christians who are circumcised in what matters and are the real Israel.’
 This is surely what Paul means.  We know that he encountered opponents of this kind, because Galatians was written to counter the teaching of just such people.  This interpretation also makes perfect sense of the Greek text.  And no other interpretation looks plausible. 

When Paul implies that it is the church that is the real Israel, this is not to be taken literally as if suggesting that ethnic Israel is not real in any sense.  But, as in Romans 2:25-29, Paul is implying that the church is Israel in a more profound sense than ethnic Israel is.

James 1:1

In this verse James writes: 
‘James, a slave of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the 12 tribes that are in the dispersion.  Greetings.’
 The first point to note here is that ‘the 12 tribes’ is clearly a reference to the 12 tribes of Israel.  Whether these 12 tribes of Israel should be understood literally or spiritually will be discussed in what follows.  But the 12 tribes have to refer to the 12 tribes of Israel in some sense.  No other interpretation is conceivably possible.

Secondly, the dispersion, also often known as the diaspora, is a term used to refer to the fact that many ethnic Jews in James’s day lived outside the ancient land of Israel.  They had been dispersed through many parts of Europe, North Africa and the Near and Middle East.

It is disputed whether James is referring here to the literal dispersion of ethnic Jews throughout various lands, or whether he is referring to some sort of metaphorical dispersion of Christians (or only Jewish Christians) in this world.

Regardless of the answer to that question, there can be no doubt that ‘the 12 tribes’ is not a reference to ethnic Israel.  James is writing his letter to Christians.  See, for example, how in 2:1 he says: 
‘My brothers, do not hold your faith in our glorious Lord Jesus Christ with an attitude of favouritism.’
 Therefore, it is only believers in Jesus who make up the 12 tribes James is writing to.  So the 12 tribes cannot be ethnic Israel, because a large majority of ethnic Jews of the time did not believe in Jesus.  James is therefore referring to the 12 tribes of Israel in some sort of spiritual sense.

There is a debate, which involves the meaning of the dispersion that I mentioned above, about whether the 12 tribes in this verse are all Jewish Christians or the whole church.

Given that numerous passages in the NT understand the church as spiritual Israel, it seems better to see the 12 tribes of Israel here as the church.  However, even if we were to take the view that James has only Jewish Christians in view, it would still be the case that this verse provides a clear example of the concept of Israel being applied to a group of people other than all those who comprised ethnic Israel.  This is another passage, then, that clearly contradicts the idea that in the Bible Israel is always understood literally.

1 Peter 2:9

In this verse Peter tells his readers: 
‘But you are a chosen race, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, a people for God’s possession . . .’
 The first thing to note here is that these words are addressed to the church.  To be precise, the letter is addressed to Christians in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia and Bithynia, as 1:1 makes clear.  But none of the teaching in this letter should be seen as limited to situations in these areas, and in reality the letter contains teaching that is relevant for all Christians.  There is no doubt that in 2:9 Peter is thinking about the whole church. 

Crucially, all the terms used here for the church – chosen race, royal priesthood, holy nation and people for God’s possession – are terms that perfectly and precisely describe ethnic Israel of OT times.  See especially Exodus 19:6 and Isaiah 43:20-21.  Peter has clearly gone out of his way to describe the church in terms that bring ethnic Israel to mind. 

Mainstream dispensationalists often claim that in this verse Peter is just saying that the church is similar to ethnic Israel in being a chosen race, royal priesthood etc., not that the church actually is Israel in any sense.  This, however, is a very contrived interpretation.  Peter is surely implying that the church is spiritual Israel in some sense.

Conclusion

There is much more biblical evidence that the church is spiritual Israel.  However, to prevent this article from becoming any longer than it needs to be, I will stop giving examples at this point.

It is not my intention here to discuss the relationship of ethnic Israel and the church.  Nevertheless, given all the evidence that the church is portrayed as spiritual Israel in the NT, and given how some passages teach that the church is Israel in a deeper and more real sense than ethnic Israel is Israel, we should have no hesitation in saying that mainstream dispensationalist theology is in serious error.  It is simply not the case that ethnic Israel and the church are distinct entities with distinct programmes in God’s purposes.  And there seems to be no evidence that any Christians before the 19th century believed this anyway. 

That is not to say that God has no unfinished business with ethnic Israel.  I find it hard to believe that the reestablishment of the state of Israel in 1948 was without significance.  And I think Romans 11:11-32 probably teaches that we should expect a massive influx of ethnic Jews into the church at some point in the future in fulfilment of OT prophecy.  In fact, Jews seem to be turning to Christ more today than they ever have done, and I think it is a real possibility that we are beginning to see the fulfilment of prophecies in Romans 11.

My best guess is that God has reestablished the Jewish state so that there is a focal point for a mass conversion of Jews to Christ.  It is certainly not God’s purpose for there to be another literal temple or anything else of the old order that was superseded in Christ.  Nor should we expect a millennial kingdom after Jesus returns.  The NT teaches repeatedly that the judgment of all the living and the dead will take place when He returns, and also that the present universe will be replaced by a new heavens and earth at that time.

But God has not forgotten the ethnic Jewish people.  And we must pray that they will accept Jesus as their Messiah and Saviour.


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